Arggggh business speak!

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kodama
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Arggggh business speak!

#1 Post by kodama » Thu Dec 18, 2008 11:40 am

I got an email with modalities in, so I thought I'd look up what it actually meant.


Modalities


1 a: the quality or state of being modal


So then I looked up modal



Modal

1 : of or relating to modality in logic

1 a: the quality or state of being modal



Arggggggghhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh who the f**k wrote that dumbass definition. :el:

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#2 Post by Old Git » Thu Dec 18, 2008 2:09 pm

How modal must that person be?
That is the sort of thing that really modals me.
I'll never understand the modality of it.

That did have me laughing my arse off though. :lol:
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#3 Post by LeeDless » Thu Dec 18, 2008 3:41 pm

From Wiki;
In linguistics, modals are expressions broadly associated with notions of possibility and necessity. Modals have a wide variety of interpretations which depend not only upon the particular modal used, but also upon where the modal occurs in a sentence, the meaning of the sentence independent of the modal, the conversational context, and a variety of other factors. For example, the interpretation of an English sentence containing the modal 'must' can be that of a statement of inference or knowledge (roughly, epistemic) or a statement of how something ought to be (roughly, deontic). The following pair of examples illustrate the interpretative difference:

(1) John didn't show up for work. He must be sick.
(2) John didn't show up for work. He must be fired.

The use of 'must' in (1) is interpreted as indicating a statement of reasoned conclusion: the speaker concludes John is sick, because otherwise John would have shown up for work. In contrast, in (2), 'must' is interpreted as a statement of how something ought to be: the speaker is saying that, because John didn't show up for work, John ought to be fired.

The use of a modal, particularly in cases like example (1) above, contrasts subtly with not using a modal, as illustrated below:

(3) John must be sick.
(4) John is sick.

The use of the modal in (3) is interpreted as indicating that some process of reasoning was used to arrive at the conclusion that John is sick. The lack of the modal in (4) tends to preclude such an interpretation, and is generally considered to be a statement of fact (i.e., the speaker knows that John is sick). In other words, a speaker would typically not say (3) if the speaker knows that (4) is true.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linguistic_modality
Hope that cleared things up, just trying to be a modal citizen. :cat:
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#4 Post by Old Git » Thu Dec 18, 2008 5:37 pm

So basically pompous arses use modal when I use 'reckon'. :roll:
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